Comments on: Science in the Field: Human Migration in the Ancient Southwest

By: Valkyrie

Valkyrie — Thu, 02 Jul 2009 05:16:06 +0000

This reminds me of the time a student asked my favorite Archaeology professor a question so moronic it has achieved near-legendary status:

She had given a lecture on how much people groups had migrated across Europe and Asia in the course of a few centuries, and asked students why they thought people might have ended up as spread-out as they had. (A proper answer might have been that they were following the herds which provided their food, for example.) A kid raised his hand and asked, “Could that be because of continental drift?” The entire class lost it, and God help her, my professor struggled valiantly to keep a straight face.

From a layperson that might not have been so bad, but from a guy who claimed to be an Archaeology major, it was just stunning! When my friend told me about it, I laughed until I cried. She dreaded going to class because the guy asked questions that dumb -every time- the class met. (I may not have learned as much, but I would happily have traded sections with her, just for the entertainment value!)

By: taylor

taylor — Thu, 02 Jul 2009 00:07:56 +0000

Nate’s got it right!

recaptcha: Mr nosing (best I’ve ever seen!)

By: Nate the Great

Nate the Great — Wed, 01 Jul 2009 23:52:40 +0000

The 108th meridian, you say? Perhaps there is an unexplored connection to LOST that we are over-looking. Maybe the Anasazi were the exiled remnants of Jacob’s People, who settled on the 108th meridian in an attempt to return to their island. Yeah, that’s the ticket.

By: Chris Higgins

Chris Higgins — Wed, 01 Jul 2009 19:39:19 +0000

I think it’s supposed to be coincidence that the “Chaco meridian” happens to align with our modern 108th meridian (which, you’re right, is based on Greenwich as the Prime Meridian).

As I understand it, the significant thing is just that there are lots of settlements along a particular north-south axis (or meridian).

By: JT

JT — Wed, 01 Jul 2009 19:35:10 +0000

Maybe this is a gap in my knowledge, but why would these ancients have calculated the meridian in the same position that we do? Ours are calibrated by the one centered in Greenwich, right? Or is there something inherent in the way the meridians are defined?